I seem to only be able to prove this when I sum from t=0 to t=p. However, when looking at the timeline given d(p)/p, it seems that one should sum from t=0 to t=p-1, which does not seem to lead to the right final answer.

Login

- All categories
- BUS 1003H - Introduction to Financial Risk (43)
- BUS 2016H - Financial Mathematics (53)
- BUS 3018F - Models (69)
- BUS 3024S - Contingencies (61)
- BUS 4028F - Financial Economics (21)
- BUS 4027W - Actuarial Risk Management (46)
- BUS 4029H - Research Project (5)
- Mphil (1)
- Calculus and Pure Mathematics (4)
- Statistics (16)

...