# Limiting distribution and eigenvalues

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Does anyone have a clear explanation for why a CTMC on a finite state space has a limiting dbn iff Q has exactly one 0 eigenvalue?

commented Mar 31, 2016 by (4,220 points)

Where did you get this fact? :) I'm trying to picture why this would be so, but haven't done any working out.

commented Apr 3, 2016 by (260 points)

It was part of one of the exercises we had to do in class...

If $$Q$$ has exactly one zero eigenvalue then it means there exists a vector $$\mathbf{x}$$ such that $$Q\mathbf{x}=0$$, which implies that $$\mathbf{x}$$ has to be equal to your stationary distribution