The answer is fairly simple and requires only a little thought.
We present value cashflows with the discount rate and can present value the same cashflows with the simple interest rate based on the assumption of no arbitrage. Here are the equations below:
$$20m = Price(1+ 0.106*91/365) $$
$$Price = 19.485...m$$ Remember not to round but store values instead.
Lastly, by the no arbitrage assumption:
$$20m(1-d*91/365) = 19.485..m$$