# In order to define a RNM, must we have defined a model for the asset price?

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asked Jun 10, 2018

In order to define a risk neutral measure must we have defined a model for the asset price? Like in the interest rate and credit risk section, there is reference to the RNM but the RNM is the measure under which the discounted asset is a martingale. So without the asset and/or without a specific model for the asset, can we still have a RNM?